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TEAS Science Diagnostic Practice Test

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Question 1 of 30

1. Question
Which of the following is considered to be a contributing factor in the decrease of infant mortality among developed countries?
- a. the marital status of the mother.
- b. the education opportunities provided to woman.
- c. the increase in health care costs.
- d. the decrease in domestic violence toward pregnant women.
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Question 2 of 30

2. Question
For populations that are said to be in a zero growth phase, which of the following is most likely occurring?
- a. the birth rate equals the immigration rate.
- b. the death rate equals the emigration rate.
- c. the infant mortality rate equals the emigration rate.
- d. the death and emigration rates equal the birth and immigration rates.
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Question 3 of 30

3. Question
Which of the following structures is essential in the controlling of the autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system?
- a. pons
- b. thalamus
- c. hypothalamus
- d. medulla oblongata
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Question 4 of 30

4. Question
According to Linnaeus’ classification system, which of the following would be less restrictive than the family of an organism?
- a. order
- b. genus
- c. species
- d. taxon
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Question 5 of 30

5. Question
Which of the following organisms exhibits a high fitness?
- a. a mule that produces infertile offspring.
- b. a turtle species that reproduces in low numbers.
- c. a cow that has 100% viability for male offspring.
- d. a deer that has 90% viability of all offspring.
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Question 6 of 30

6. Question
Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?
- a. the presence of DNA.the presence of DNA.
- b. the presence of a nucleus.
- c. the presence of proteins.
- d. the presence of ribosomes.
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Question 7 of 30

7. Question
Cellular respiration, the process responsible for the production of cellular energy would be performed using which of the following organelles?
- a. ribosome
- b. nucleolus
- c. chloroplast
- d. mitochondria
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Question 8 of 30

8. Question
Which of the following is true for both chloroplasts and mitochondria?
- a. they are both in animal cells.
- b. they have a single membrane and contain only RNA.
- c. they have a double membrane and contain maternal DNA.
- d. they have an impermeable membrane and contain single stranded DNA.
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Question 9 of 30

9. Question
According to Darwin’s findings, he proposed that the finches he observed in the Galapagos islands differed due to which of the following?
- a. the presence of humans on each island.
- b. the amount of sunlight available on each island.
- c. the presence of predators on each island.
- d. the differing climates and vegetation on each island.
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Question 10 of 30

10. Question
During embryo development which of the following germ layers differentiates to form the muscles?
- a. endoderm
- b. mesoderm
- c. interoderm
- d. ectoderm
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Question 11 of 30

11. Question
In which of the following cellular processes do homologous chromosomes pair up to form tetrads?
- a. mitosis
- b. meiosis I
- c. meiosis II
- d. interphase
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Question 12 of 30

12. Question
At the end of mitosis in a human body cell, how many cells are produced and what is the number of chromosomes in each cell?
- a. 2 cells with 23 chromosomes
- b. 2 cells with 46 chromosomes
- c. 4 cells with 23 chromosomes
- d. 4 cells with 46 chromosomes
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Question 13 of 30

13. Question
Which of the following is a byproduct produced during photosynthesis?
- a. O₂
- b. H₂O
- c. CO₂
- d. C₅H₁₀O₂
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Question 14 of 30

14. Question
Both DNA and RNA have which of the following in their molecular structures?
- a. thymine
- b. ribose sugar
- c. phosphate groups
- d. deoxyribose sugar
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Question 15 of 30

15. Question
Mutations are likely to have which of the following effects on a cell’s functioning?
- a. have a mild effect on the nuclear membrane.
- b. have a catastrophic effect on the cell’s functioning.
- c. have no effect as the mutation may not be expressed.
- d. effect only the proteins and lipids produced in the cell.
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Question 16 of 30

16. Question
The region on the DNA that codes for a protein is called which of the following?
- a. gene
- b. allele
- c. introns
- d. a nucleotide
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Question 17 of 30

17. Question
For eye color, brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. A heterozygote and a homozygous dominant individual would have what colored eyes?
- a. blue only
- b. brown only
- c. blue and brown
- d. cannot be determined
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Question 18 of 30

18. Question
A homozygous recessive female is mated with a homozygous dominant male. Which of the following would be the genotype of the offspring?
- a. AA
- b. aa
- c. Aa
- d. cannot be determined
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Question 19 of 30

19. Question
Which of the following occurs during the S phase of interphase?
- a. organelles are replicated
- b. DNA is replicated
- c. proteins are replicated
- d. RNA is degraded
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Question 20 of 30

20. Question
Which of the following serves as the catalyst for initiating photosynthesis?
- a. cartenoid
- b. electrons
- c. sunlight
- d. chlorophyll
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Question 21 of 30

21. Question
What are the coefficients in the following chemical reaction?

____Mg(OH)₂ + ____HCl ⇒ _____MgCl₂ + _____H₂O
- a. 1, 1, 1, 1
- b. 1, 2, 2, 1
- c. 2, 2, 1, 1
- d. 1, 2, 1, 2
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Question 22 of 30

22. Question
What of the following compounds is reduced in the following chemical reaction?

6CO₂ + 6H₂O ⇒ C₆H₁₂O₆+ 6O₂
- a. CO₂
- b. O₂
- c. H₂
- d. C₆H₁₂O₆
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Question 23 of 30

23. Question
A catalyst is able to speed up a chemical reaction by doing which of the following?
- a. increase the transition state
- b. lower the activation energy
- c. decrease the thermal energy
- d. increase the heat exchange
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Question 24 of 30

24. Question
Which of the following are specialized proteins that are able to perform catalytic functions?
- a. lipids
- b. catalase
- c. enzymes
- d. nucleases
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Question 25 of 30

25. Question
A solution has a recorded pH of 7.11. Which of the following is the best categorization of this solution?
- a. weak acid
- b. neutral
- c. weak base
- d. strong base
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Question 26 of 30

26. Question
Hexane has which of the following types of chemical bonds?
- a. all single bonds
- b. single and double bonds
- c. single and triple bonds
- d. double and triple bonds
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Question 27 of 30

27. Question
Water does not evaporate easily due to which of the following chemical properties?
- a. polarity
- b. hydrogen bonding
- c. covalent bonding
- d. ionic bonding
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Question 28 of 30

28. Question
Due to water’s polarity, water is known as which of the following?
- a. a base
- b. an acid
- c. universal solute
- d. universal solvent
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Question 29 of 30

29. Question
Gas particles are able to collide with each other as they move in random and rapid motion. Gas particles contain a high amount of which type of energy?
- a. kinetic energy
- b. potential energy
- c. total energy
- d. random energy
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Question 30 of 30

30. Question
An element that has 10 protons and 11 electrons would have which of the following charges?
- a. +1
- b. 0
- c. -1
- d. +1 and -1
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TEAS Science Diagnostic Practice Test

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